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AMBOSS 200 High Yield (HY) Concepts for Step 2 Practice Test

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About this Exam

Prepare with the AMBOSS 200 High Yield (HY) Concepts for Step 2 Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering performed, therapy, deficiency, management, and pleural. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

Sample Questions

Question 1
If emergent PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes in STEMI, what is the recommended alternative therapy?
Thrombolytic therapy
Immediate PCI
Start antibiotics
Observation and analgesia
Explanation:
In STEMI, restoring blood flow quickly is the priority. If primary PCI cannot be done within 120 minutes, the best alternative is thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy to dissolve the clot and reperfuse the blocked coronary artery as soon as possible. Administer the fibrinolytic agent promptly (ideally within 30 minutes of arrival, with treatment ideally started within 12 hours of symptom onset) and then continue standard antiplatelet therapy while arranging transfer for further evaluation or rescue PCI if reperfusion is incomplete or fails. Be mindful of contraindications and the bleeding risk. Antibiotics or simply observing the patient would not address the occlusion.
Question 2
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with increased risk of which liver conditions?
Hepatocellular carcinoma only
Cirrhosis only
Neither hepatocellular carcinoma nor cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma and cirrhosis
Explanation:
Chronic liver injury from alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency leads to both scarring (cirrhosis) and an increased risk of liver cancer (hepatocellular carcinoma). The deficiency causes misfolded A1AT to accumulate in hepatocytes, provoking ongoing inflammation and fibrosis that can progress to cirrhosis. Once cirrhosis develops, the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma rises due to the chronic regenerative drive and genetic instability in the cirrhotic liver. Therefore, this condition is associated with both cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma, with the cancer risk being greatest when cirrhosis is present.
Question 3
A known complication of right-sided infective endocarditis is which of the following?
Septic pulmonary emboli
Emboli to brain
Splenic infarct
Renal infarct
Explanation:
Right-sided infective endocarditis sends vegetations into the venous circulation, so fragments embolize to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries. This makes septic pulmonary emboli the classic and most likely complication. Emboli to the brain, spleen, or kidneys come from left-sided endocarditis, since those emboli travel through the arterial system to systemic organs. In practice, right-sided disease (often involving the tricuspid valve) is classically associated with pulmonary findings, whereas systemic emboli point to left-sided involvement.
Question 4
For long-term management of deep vein thrombosis, which therapy is preferred?
Heparin therapy
Warfarin therapy alone
DOACs such as apixaban or rivaroxaban
Aspirin therapy only
Explanation:
Direct oral anticoagulants, such as apixaban or rivaroxaban, are preferred for long-term management of deep vein thrombosis. They provide effective protection against recurrent events with a convenient, fixed dosing approach and do not require routine lab monitoring or warfarin-like INR management. They also avoid the need for bridging with heparin, which simplifies outpatient therapy. Trials have shown these DOACs to be as effective as warfarin for preventing recurrence, with at least comparable or even lower risk of major bleeding. In contrast, heparin is mainly for initial treatment, warfarin requires regular INR checks and has many interactions, and aspirin alone does not offer adequate anticoagulation for long-term prevention in most patients.
Question 5
In the evaluation of a new pleural effusion, which intervention provides diagnostic pleural fluid for analysis and is commonly performed as the initial step?
Chest X-ray
Lung Biopsy
Bronchoscopy
Thoracentesis
Explanation:
Obtaining fluid from the pleural space with thoracentesis provides material for direct analysis and is the first, best step to diagnose a new pleural effusion. By tapping the effusion, you can send pleural fluid for multiple tests that distinguish causes and guide management: Light’s criteria to separate exudates from transudates, cell counts with differential, cytology for malignancy, Gram stain and culture for infection, pH and glucose levels, and even ADA testing for TB. This direct sampling is what makes thoracentesis the most informative initial intervention. Chest imaging can show that an effusion is present but does not yield diagnostic fluid. Lung biopsy samples tissue, not fluid, and bronchoscopy targets the airways rather than the pleural space, so they don’t provide the diagnostic pleural fluid needed to evaluate the effusion.

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Additional Information

AMBOSS 200 High Yield (HY) Concepts for Step 2 Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on performed, therapy, deficiency, management, and pleural. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

Frequently Asked Questions

This quiz contains a total of 10 practice questions carefully selected to test your knowledge on this subject.
Yes, you will have exactly 0 minutes to complete the exam. A countdown timer will be visible once you start.
Yes, you can retake this practice test as many times as you need. The questions and options may be randomized on subsequent attempts to ensure comprehensive learning.

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