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Care Flight Entrance Practice Exam

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About this Exam

Prepare with the Care Flight Entrance Practice Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering receptor, associated, rate, action, and pulse. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

Sample Questions

Question 1
Which receptor is associated with vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle causing increased blood pressure?
Beta 1 receptors
Dopaminergic receptors
Alpha 1 receptors
V2 receptors
Explanation:
The key idea is how different receptors affect vascular smooth muscle. Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors on vascular smooth muscle trigger a Gq signaling cascade that raises intracellular calcium, causing the muscle to contract. That contraction narrows the vessels (vasoconstriction) and raises systemic vascular resistance, which in turn increases blood pressure. Beta-1 receptors mainly increase heart rate and the force of cardiac contraction, boosting cardiac output rather than causing direct vasoconstriction of vessels. Dopaminergic receptors can cause vasodilation in some vascular beds at certain doses, not the primary vasoconstrictive effect described. Vasopressin acts via V1 receptors to constrict vessels, but V2 receptors regulate water reabsorption in the kidneys, not vascular smooth muscle constriction.
Question 2
If respiratory rate increases, what happens to pH?
Increase pH (more alkalosis)
Variable
Decrease (more acidosis)
No change
Explanation:
When you breathe faster, you blow off more CO2. CO2 reacts with water to form carbonic acid, which releases hydrogen ions and lowers pH. Reducing CO2 shifts that balance, decreasing hydrogen ions and raising pH. So the immediate effect of increased respiratory rate is an increase in pH (respiratory alkalosis). The other options don’t fit because faster breathing does not raise acidity, produce no change, or vary unpredictably in the short term—the key is that CO2 loss drives pH up. (Longer-term metabolic compensation can occur, but the direct response is pH increase.)
Question 3
In bradyarrhythmia management, what is recommended for symptomatic bradycardia with HR < 50?
If symptomatic, start dopamine infusion or epi infusion
If medications ineffective or not available, initiate transcutaneous pacing
Administer atropine every 3-5 minutes, maximum of 3 doses
If asymptomatic, monitor closely and assess contributing causes
Explanation:
In symptomatic bradycardia, the immediate aim is to raise the heart rate quickly by reducing the parasympathetic (vagal) influence on the heart. Atropine does this by blocking muscarinic receptors on the SA and AV nodes, which increases automaticity and improves conduction, helping to restore a more effective rhythm and perfusion. The best initial step is to give an IV atropine dose of 0.5 mg, repeated every 3–5 minutes, with a maximum total dose of 3 mg. This fast-acting approach often reverses the bradycardia and improves symptoms rapidly. If atropine doesn’t produce a sufficient response or if the bradycardia is due to a rhythm that atropine won’t improve (for example, high-grade AV block or certain myocardial infarctions), escalation is needed. Options include transcutaneous pacing and, if needed, IV vasopressors such as dopamine or epinephrine, or moving toward transvenous pacing. The other stated options describe steps that are not the first-line management for a symptomatic bradycardia with a heart rate under 50.
Question 4
In adult ACLS, what is the first action after you identify that the patient has no pulse?
Defibrillate immediately
Check pulse again
Administer 1 mg Epinephrine
Start CPR and attach monitor
Explanation:
When a patient is pulseless, the immediate goal is to preserve brain and heart perfusion as quickly as possible. The fastest and most effective way to do this is to start high-quality chest compressions right away while the defibrillator/monitor is brought in and applied. Attaching the monitor as you begin CPR lets you identify the heart rhythm and determine whether a shock is indicated, but you shouldn’t delay compressions waiting to decide or to deliver a shock. In other words, compressions must start immediately, with the monitor connected so you can act on the rhythm as soon as it’s known.
Question 5
Who should not receive ketamine?
Adults with hypertension
Kids
Elderly
Patients with asthma
Explanation:
Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that preserves airway reflexes and respiration, and it’s valued for rapid sedation and analgesia in emergencies. However, it can cause emergence phenomena (agitation, dreams) and autonomic effects like increased heart rate and blood pressure. In pediatric patients, emergence delirium is more common and can complicate airway management and transport, especially in a prehospital/flight setting where monitoring and dosing are more challenging. For that reason, pediatric patients are the group where ketamine is avoided or used with great caution in this context. In contrast, adults with hypertension may experience higher blood pressure with ketamine but it’s not an absolute contraindication and can be used with careful monitoring. In the elderly, there is increased sensitivity to CNS and cardiovascular effects, so caution is advised, but it’s not an outright prohibition. Patients with asthma can actually benefit from ketamine’s bronchodilatory properties, so it’s not contraindicated there. So, the most appropriate group not to receive ketamine in this scenario is kids.

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Additional Information

Care Flight Entrance Practice Exam

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on receptor, associated, rate, action, and pulse. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

Frequently Asked Questions

This quiz contains a total of 10 practice questions carefully selected to test your knowledge on this subject.
Yes, you will have exactly 0 minutes to complete the exam. A countdown timer will be visible once you start.
Yes, you can retake this practice test as many times as you need. The questions and options may be randomized on subsequent attempts to ensure comprehensive learning.

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